AWS-Cloud-Practitioner
Amazon Cloud Practitioner
Q1. Which of these is not an essential characteristics of cloud technology?
- Customers pay only for what they use
- Resources are accessed over the internet
- Many resource are hosted on the same hardware
- Resources can change size quickly as needed
Resources are accessed over the internet (You can also have cloud access over your private network)
Q2. What are TWO benefits for business when using the cloud?
- Don't have to anticipate capacity
- Don't have to configure firewalls
- Can adapt quickly to changing market demands
- Can outsource all development responsibilities
- Can outsource all mainteance responsibilites
Don't have to anticipate capacity
Can adapt quickly to changing market demands
Q3. Which of the following is a benefit of using the AWS well-architected framework?
- It provides prescriptive guidance of how to migrate to AWS
- It automates the creation of virtual resources
- It helps identify and remediate security and complaince risks in the cloud.
- It guarantees cost savings for all workloads
It helps identify and remediate security and complaince risks in hte cloud
Q4. If a company is reviewing its disaster recovery procedures for opportunities to improve their recovery metrics, which pillar of the well-architected framework are they working with?
- Cost optimization
- Reliability
- Security
- Sustainability
Reliability
Q5. Which of the following is classified as CapEx?
- Purchase of physical server
- Bill for cloud server
- Employee training event
- Property insurance premium
Purchase of physical server
Q6. Which design strategy ensures your website is always available?
- Disposability
- Elasticity
- Scalability
- Redundancy
Redundancy (Having multiple copies of something, so if one fails other copy continues to ensure that your website is always available)
Q7. Which of the following data transfers is free in AWS?
- Data across AWS regions
- Data from the internet into an AWS region
- Data within an AWS Region across Availability Zones
- Data from an AWS region to the internet
Data from the internet int an AWS region
Q8. Which CAF (Cloud adoption framework) phase first demonstrates business value ?
- Launch
- Scale
- Envision
- Align
Launch
Q9. Which AWS resources access option would allow a web server instnace to pull data from a database ?
- API
- IaC
- CLI
- SDK
API
Q10. What can a developer do with an access key?
- Administrative access to adjust other user accounts from CLI
- Programmatic access to te root user account from the Management console
- Administrative access to Organization accounts from the Management console
- Permissioned access to the developer's account from a CLI
Permissioned access to the developer's account from a CLI
Q11. Which cloud deployment model is most often the result of a temporary transitional phase ?
- Public cloud
- Multi - cloud
- Community cloud
- Hybrid cloud
Hybrid cloud
Q12. Which cloud connectivity option offers the highest security?
- Client VPN
- Public internet
- Direct connect
- Site-to-site VPN
Direct connect (Direct connect does not have built in encryption)
Q13. A company needs an inexpensive way to avoid having a single point of failure in their server cluster. Which of the following is the least expensive option to meet this requirement?
- Spread the cluster across multiple Regions
- Spread the cluster across multiple AZs
- Spread the cluster across multiple racks
- Spread the cluster across multiple hosts
Spread the cluster across multiple AZs
Q14. Whcih service should you use to publish software update files while minimizing download time for users throughout the world?
- Wavelength
- CloudFront
- Global Accelerator
- Outposts
cloudFront
Q15. A social media company wants to get user traffic onto AWS's private infrastructure as quickly as possible. Which service will meet this needs?
- Wavelength
- CloudFront
- Global Accelerator
- Outposts
Global Accelerator
Q16. Which configuration option in EC2 determines how much RAM the instance gets?
- Storage
- AMI
- Tag
- Type
Type
Q17. A company's stateless data processing workload frequently leaves EC2 capacity unused. Which EC2 pricing option would fix the problem?
- Spot
- Reserved
- On-Demand
- Dedicated
Spot
Q18. Where are container images stored for creating new container clusters?
- Repositroy
- EC2 instance store
- Marketplace
- Kubernetes
Repository
Q19. When to use serverless?
- Just build your code
- Only pay when your code runs
- Run code closer to user
- Inherently scalable
- Update to code, not to server
All of above
Q20. When NOT to use serverless?
- Troubleshooting troubles
- Long run limitations (Lamda functions can run upto 15 minutes)
- Cold starts
- Security concerns
- Legacy conversions
All of above
Q21. Which of the following configurations most determines how much it costs to run a Lamda function?
- Trigger source
- Memory
- Destination target
- Tag
Memory
Q22. Which type of scaling would increase the size of the instance's resources?
- Scale up
- Scale down
- Scale in
- Scale out
Scale up
Q23. With which of the following services can automatic scaling of hosts NOT be handled using auto-scaling policies set by the customer?
- EC2 spot fleets
- EC2 ASGs
- RDS tables
- DynamoDB throughput
RDS tables
Q24. When setting up a Database migration in AWS, which service do you start with?
- RDS
- SCT
- DMS
- SQL
DMS (Database Migration service)
Q25. Which database service is optimized to handle OLAP workloads but does not handle OLTP workloads?
- RDS
- RedShift
- Aurora
- DMS
RedShift (RDS and Aurora can also be used for OLAP as well as OLTP)
Q26. To ge the most automation built into your database deployment make sure to use
- RDS
- Aurora
- EC2
- MySQL
Aurora
Q27. Which task is AWS responsibility when using RDS?
- Adding data to database
- Controlling database access
- Placing DB instance in a VPC
- Patching DB instance's OS
Patching DB instance's OS
Q28. Which AWS service is designed around non-relational key-value pairs?
- RedShift
- Aurora
- DynamoDB
- RDS
DynamoDB
Q29. You've setup a new website on EC2 instance. What AWS service can you use to publish your new website address so customers can find you?
- EC2
- Route 53
- VPC
- API Gateway
Route 53
Q30. Which of the following group is logically the smallest?
- Availability zone
- Region
- Subnet
- VPC
Subnet
Q31. What kind of resources does NACL protect?
- VPC
- EC2 instance
- S3 bucket
- Subnet
Subnet
Q32. Which two services or features can be used to configure protections on virual network interface?
- NACL
- WAF
- Firewall manager
- Security group
Firewall manager & Security group
Q33. Which service helps reduce latency for users sending information to a server?
- Cloudfront
- Global Accelerator
- Origin Shield
- Cloudfront Functions
Global Accelerator
Q34. What kind of storage is cloud-native by design?
- File system storage
- Object storage
- Offline storage
- Block storage
Object storage
Q35. What kind of items are saved inside S3 bucket?
- Blocks
- Folders
- Object
- Volumes
Object
Q36. Which storage could serve as a boot device for Linux EC2 instances?
- FSx for windows
- EFS
- FSx for OpenZFS
- EBS
EBS (Elastic Boot Store)
Q37. Which service is required to enable encryption of EBS volumes?
- ELB
- KMS
- EC2
- S3
KMS (Key management service)
Q38. Which process directly provides high availability of a service?
- Lifecycle management
- Automatic archival
- Disaster recovery
- Backup
Disaster recovery
Q39. Which of these is most likely a critical component of DR design?
- AMI
- ARN
- DDOS
- NACL
AMI (Amazon Machine Image)
Q40. Which S3 storage tier would emphasize low cost over durability?
- Glacier Archive
- Intelligent tiering
- Standard
- One zone-IA
One zone-IA
Q41. Which AWS service helps Alexa's voice sound personable?
- Lex
- Polly
- Comprehend
- Rekognition
Polly
Q42. What service is used to run ETL (Extract, Transform and Load) jobs?
- Glue
- Kinesis Data streams
- QuickSight
- Athena
Glue
Q43. Which service can provide a way for AWS services to message a human administrator?
- Step Functions
- Kinesis
- SQS (Simple Queue Service)
- SNS (Simple Notification Service)
SNS (Simple Notification Service)
Q44. A school needs to provide virtual desktops to their students. Students should be ableto sae files across sessions, but each session should sart with a fresh instance. Which service meets theses requirements with the least administrative overhead?
- EC2
- Connect
- AppStream 2.0
- WorkSpaces Web
AppStream 2.0
Q45. Which service actually puts your code on, say, an EC2 instance to make your app available to your users?
- CodeArtifact
- CodeBuild
- CodeCommit
- CodeDeploy
CodeDeploy
Q46. A company needs to give query access to app users without requiring users to understand anything of the backend structure. Which service will meet this need?
- Amplify (Dev can focus on frontend, while backend control is given easily)
- AppSync (connects the application to datasources so that users can query)
- Cognito (Managing user authentication for customers)
- Device Farm (Is testing devices)
AppSync
Q47. What service will allow a company to share consistantly designed environment template with their developers for testing and manage access control for these templates with the least amount of administrative effort?
- CloudFormation
- Service Catalog
- Elastic Beanstalk
- Launch Wizard
Service Catalog
Q48. Who is responsible for securing data output produced by Lamda (a serverles service)?
- AWS
- AWS's customer
- AWS customer's customer
- The Governement
AWS's Customer
Q49. An IT admin needs access to AWS complaince documentation. Which service will meet this need ?
- Audit manager
- CloudTrail
- Artifact
- Control Tower
Artifact
Q50. What resources sets up an organizational account environment that is compliant with AWS best practices?
- Compliance
- Landing zone
- Control Tower
- Artifact
Landing zone
Q51. An admin wants to make sure to get a notification if a security group is misconfigured anywhere in Company's AWS environment. Which service will meet this need?
- Inspector
- Detective
- Trusted Advisor
- Internet Gateway
Trusted Advisor
Q52. What of the following benefits is provided by partners?
- Volume discounts
- Migration support
- Articles and videos
- Service events information
Migration support
Q53. You ONLY want to manage Applications and Data. Which type of Cloud Computing model should you use?
- On Premises
- Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- Software as a Service (SaaS)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Q54. What is the pricing modal of Cloud Computing?
- Discounts over time
- Pas as you go serivce
- Pay once a year
- Flat-rate pricing
Pay as you go service
Q55. Which Global Infrastructure identity is composed of one or more discrete data centers with redundant power, networking, and connectivity, and are used to deploy infrastructure?
- Edge Location
- Availability Zone
- Region
Availability Zone
Q56. Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Characteristics of Cloud Computing?
- Rapid elasticity and scalability
- Multi-tenancy and resource pooling
- Dedicated support Agent to help you deploy applications
- On-demand self-service
Dedicated support Agent to help you deploy applications
Q57. Which are the three pricing fundamentals of AWS Cloud?
- Compute, Storage, and Data transfer in the AWS Cloud
- Compute, Networking and Data transfer out of the AWS cloud
- Compute, storage and Data transfer out of the AWS Cloud
- Storage, Functions and Data transfer in the AWS Cloud
Compute, storage and Data transfer out of the AWS Cloud
Q58. Which of the following options is NOT a point of consideration when choosing an AWS Region?
- Latency
- Compliance with data governance
- Capacity availability
- Pricing
Capacity availability (The 4 point of consideration when choosing an AWS Region are: Compliance with data governance and legal requirements, proximity to customers, avilable services and features within a region, pricing)
Q59. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Cloud Computing?
- Trade capital expense (CAPEX) for operational expense (OPEX)
- Train your employees less
- Go global in minutes
- Stop spending money on running and maintaining data centers
Train your employees less
Q60. AWS Regions are composed of?
- Two or more edge locations
- One or more descrete data centers
- Three or more availability zones
Three or more availability zones
Q61. Which of the following services has a global scope?
- EC2
- IAM
- Lamda
- Rekognition
IAM (Identity and Access Management)
Q62. Which of the following is the definition of Cloud Computing?
- Rapidly develop, test and launch Software applications
- Automatic and quick ability to acquire resources as you need them and release resources when you no longer need them
- On-demand availability of computer system resources, especially data storage and computing power without direct active management by the user
- Change resources type when needed
On-demand availability of computer system resources, especially data storage and computing power without direct active management by the user
Q63. What defines the distribution of responsibilities for security in the AWS Cloud?
- AWS Pricing fundamentals
- The Shared responsibility model
- AWS Acceptable Use Policy
- The AWS Management Console
The Shared responsibility model
Q64. A company would like to benefit from the advantages of the Public Cloud but would like to keep sensitive assets in its own infrastructure. Which deployment model should the company use?
- Hybrid Cloud
- Private Cloud
- Public Cloud
Hybrid Cloud
Q65. What is NOT authorized to do on AWS according to the AWS Acceptable Use Policy?
- Building a gaming application
- Deploying a website
- Run analytics on stolen data
- Backup your data
Run analytics on stolen data